[Solved]: A 54-year-old man was referred by his primary care…

A 54-year-old man was referred by his primary care physician for evaluation of anxiety. He is convinced that he has a lethal heart condition that will cause death or serious illness spontaneously at any time. He has presented to the hospital on four occasions in the past year for evaluation. He demanded a cardiac catheterization, which was performed and revealed less than 30% stenosis in all coronary arteries. He has no symptoms. He has no history of hyperlipidemia, hypertension, kidney disease, or diabetes. His body mass index is 22. He has no history of a psychotic, mood, or anxiety disorder. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. He does not use drugs. Of the following, which is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s condition? Bupropion Fluoxetine Mirtazapine Risperidone