[Expert Solution]: A 55-year-old white man (weight 214 lb) is…

A 55-year-old white man (weight 214 lb) is admitted to the hospital with acutely decompensated HF requiring inotropic support. Echocardiogram shows LVEF 42%, moderate functional mitral regurgitation, and dilated left ventricle. The patient’s medical history is significant for hyperlipidemia and idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy. His condition stabilizes and he is resumed on his home regimen of bumetanide 2 mg daily, carvedilol 12.5 mg twice daily, eplerenone 25 mg daily, lisinopril 20 mg daily, and rosuvastatin 10 mg daily. A basic metabolic panel is unrevealing aside from a Hgb of 11.2 g/dL. The patient is clinically stable other than complaints of feeling fatigued and inability to participate in physical therapy. He exhibits no clinical signs of bleeding, so the medical resident begins to work up the cause of his anemia. Iron studies return with a serum ferritin 115 ng/mL and transferrin saturation 18% [reference range 20%-50%]. Which one of the following is best to recommend to correct this patient’s iron-deficiency anemia?