[Answered]: A 36 old woman presents with a painless breast lump

A 36 old woman presents with a painless breast lump. On examination 1×1 cm rutibery, freely mobile mass i felt in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast with no axillary lymph nodes. What is the next most appropriate step in management? A Reassurance 8. Repeat physical asamination in 6 months C. Excisional biopsy C. Core needle blopry E Mammography and ultrasound 2. 24-year-old woman, 6 weeks postpartum and currently breast feeding, presents with breast pain. Her temperature is 38-C, Examination shows a swollen area in her right breast. There is no fluctuance noted. Which of the following is the next best step in management? A. Incision and drainage B. Mammography C. Breast ultrasound. D. Antibiotics, analgesics and continue breast feeding E. Antibiotic, analgesics and nursing only from the unaffected breast 3. A blood-stained discharge from the nipple would most likely indicate A.Breast abscess B.Fibroadenoma C.Duct papilloma D.Fat necrosis of breast E. Advanced breast cancer 4. A 42-year-old female patient present with a hard, mobile lump in her right breast. Which investigation would be most helpful in making the diagnosis? A. FNAC B. Core needle biopsy C.Excision Biopsy D. Mammography E. Breast ultrasound 5. On mammogram, all of the following are the features of a malignant tumour, EXCEPT: A. Spiculation B.Microcalcification C.Macrocalcification D. Irregular mass E. Architectural distortion 6. A 50-year-old man presents with fever 3 day after having an inguinal hernia repaired. The most likely setiology of his fever is: A. Urinary tract infection 3. Postoperative atelectasis C. Surgical wound infection D. Abdominal abscess collection E.Deep vein thrambass